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610 Views 1 Reply Latest reply: Jun 18, 2011 10:13 PM by DawgDays RSS
BobK_MI_D1 Amateur 10 posts since
May 30, 2007
Currently Being Moderated

Jun 18, 2011 8:54 PM

Bunt after two strikes

My son and I were watching the Florida/Texas game tonight, and one of the batters attempted a bunt after he had two strikes.  He fouled it away for the out.  My son looked at me and asked why that rule was in place.  I had to tell him that I didn't know what the reasoning behind that rule was . . . the "why" of the rule being there.

 

Anybody have some history you can pass along?

  • DawgDays Pro 156 posts since
    May 25, 2007
    Currently Being Moderated
    1. Jun 18, 2011 10:13 PM (in response to BobK_MI_D1)
    Re: Bunt after two strikes

    From JEA:

     

    Historical Notes: During the dead ball era (1901-1919), bunting or "pushing the ball" became a strategic ploy. Some batters became so adept at this skill that their talents were used by cunning managers to "wear out" an opposing pitcher. A batter could literally foul off pitches "at will" thus causing the pitcher to expend excessive energy.


    A strike had first been charged the batter for a "foul bunt" in 1894. In 1909, the "foul bunt on third strike" was ruled a strikeout for the first time.

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