My son and I were watching the Florida/Texas game tonight, and one of the batters attempted a bunt after he had two strikes. He fouled it away for the out. My son looked at me and asked why that rule was in place. I had to tell him that I didn't know what the reasoning behind that rule was . . . the "why" of the rule being there.
Anybody have some history you can pass along?
Historical Notes: During the dead ball era (1901-1919), bunting or "pushing the ball" became a strategic ploy. Some batters became so adept at this skill that their talents were used by cunning managers to "wear out" an opposing pitcher. A batter could literally foul off pitches "at will" thus causing the pitcher to expend excessive energy.
A strike had first been charged the batter for a "foul bunt" in 1894. In 1909, the "foul bunt on third strike" was ruled a strikeout for the first time.