Skip navigation

1109 Views 6 Replies Latest reply: Aug 1, 2011 7:05 AM by Frank_B RSS
Frank_B Legend 1,324 posts since
May 30, 2007
Currently Being Moderated

Jul 31, 2011 8:40 AM

1st one on me!!    ????

A little backgrouind info first----for interested persons.

 

Each LL post-regular-season  play our District runs a Special Games Tournament designed to raise money for kids with cancer. "The Jimmy Fund" in conjunction with the Dana-Farber Institute of Boston where kids with cancer are  treated.

Last year we raised a high of $24,000.00; this year our target is $30,000.00  Raised mostly with the initiative of the players themselves.

[Some other Massachusetts districts do the same also]

 

We feature a 9-year level; 10-year old; level; 11 year old level, and a 12 year old level---to determine a champion at each level.

Players rostered on these teams are (only) players who were NOT chosen to play on any level of  the Williamsport T-Play.

 

LL regular season rules are used.

 

Yesterday we held a final championship games for all levels at the same venue starting @ 10:00 AM---with the 9's; and followed by the 10's, 11's, & 12's.

 

We use service umpires.

 

Now for the  "1st one on  me"----and maybe I missed something somewhere over the years.

 

Had a PU, who, when a foul ball was hit, and stayed in the park, would not declare it foul uintil a defensive player touched it.

Coaches in the boxes were told NOT to touch or RETRIEVE a foul ball----a defensive player must touch it first before he would call it foul.

 

When I asked him after the game...his only answer was.... "I was taught that's the proper way to call a foul."

 

The question:-----Does anyone here know of a rule-set where that subject is covered?

 

Rich Ives? Others?

 

Frank!

  • Phillieball Pro 99 posts since
    Mar 23, 2001
    Currently Being Moderated
    1. Jul 31, 2011 9:08 AM (in response to Frank_B)
    Re: 1st one on me!! ????

    Isn't this just a strict interpretation of the definition of a foul ball in 2.0?

     

    I'm assuming that he wanted the person of an infielder to touch a moving batted ball in or over foul territory.  He didn't require that touch if the ball had settled in foul territory or hit a fence in it, did he?

     

    The strict interpretation is a fence to keep coaches from making a mistake and fielding a ball that still had a chance to go fair.  This is probably more likely on 90'; at least that's where I last saw it happen.  My lefty son got jammed and hit a Massey shot that blooped into the third base coach's box then spun right to hit the bag.  If he had run from contact, he would have beat it since no one there thought it would be fair.

  • mackman Pro 83 posts since
    May 25, 2007
    Currently Being Moderated
    2. Jul 31, 2011 10:26 AM (in response to Frank_B)
    Re: 1st one on me!! ????

    Over umpiring, pure and simple.  No reason for it.  Sure, on a ball that could still be determined coaches of course shouldn't touch it, but a ball that is already clearly foul?  No reason to make such instructions to the coaches. 

  • Kyle_ Legend 556 posts since
    May 25, 2007
    Currently Being Moderated
    4. Jul 31, 2011 2:27 PM (in response to Frank_B)
    Re: 1st one on me!! ????
    I wouldn't overanalyize this, gents. He's just stupid.
  • Lou_B Community Moderator 1,319 posts since
    May 25, 2007
    Currently Being Moderated
    5. Aug 1, 2011 6:27 AM (in response to Frank_B)
    Re: 1st one on me!! ????

    "We use service umpires."

     

    You need better service !!!

More Like This

  • Retrieving data ...